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  #16  
Old August 20th, 2003, 08:55 AM
JMM JMM is offline
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I think I see what you're saying.

I would do this (just for the sake of argument, let's say I provide only hostnames for the name servers):

[register anything.com]
ns3.example.com
ns4.example.com

Then, when someone accesses anything.com, the master name server for .com would eventually be queried and, because ns3.example.com and ns4.example.com had been registered with the registrar, it would provide the IP addresses for those name servers, which would then be queried and return the IP address for anything.com. Is that right?

Thanks

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  #17  
Old August 20th, 2003, 11:40 AM
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SilentRage SilentRage is offline
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If you only specified the domains to the registry for anything.com then yes, example.com would HAVE to be queried to get the dns server's IP.
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  #18  
Old August 20th, 2003, 12:00 PM
JMM JMM is offline
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Quote:
If you only specified the domains to the registry for anything.com then yes, example.com would HAVE to be queried to get the dns server's IP.
Actually, I don't think that's true. That seems to be the point of registering the name servers through the registrar. As you said before, adding the A records to the example.com zone should never actually play a role in using those as name servers. Of course if you wanted to use ns3.example.com for anything else, e.g. an HTTP or FTP server, then you would need the A records.

I configured ns3.example.com and ns4.example.com as the name servers for anything.com, and it showed me immediately that it had the IP addresses.

I am also getting the A records added to the example.com zone to allow for other possibilities.

I really appreciate your contribution to this thread. Your help has been invaluable and has helped me solve my immediate problem and develop a fuller understanding of the DNS system.

It looks like you're almost holding down this forum by yourself, you should be a moderator or something.

Thanks for sticking with this through all of my abstraction.

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  #19  
Old August 20th, 2003, 12:53 PM
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SilentRage SilentRage is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by SilentRage
Well, it's like this. When people look up the anything.com zone, they'll be pointed to by the registered domains and IP's you provided. It is unlikely that the client will have to look up your DNS servers ns3 and ns4 directly. However, on the off-chance that they do, you should make them resolveable.


As you can see, what you said, is exactly what I said before.

"It is unlikely that the client will have to look up your DNS servers ns3 and ns4 directly"

unlikely unf unf, unlikely, bang boom, unlikely. Why?

"When people look up the anything.com zone they'll be pointed to by the registered domains and IP's you provided"

For that reason, you don't need to add the records to the example.com zone. However you should add them anyway, why?

"However, on the off-chance that they do, you should make them resolveable."

And bingo.

This:

"If you only specified the domains to the registry for anything.com then yes, example.com would HAVE to be queried to get the dns server's IP."

That a theoretical answer to your question IF you did not tell the registrar the IP's associated with ns3 and ns4.

Thanks for the commendation.

Last edited by SilentRage : August 20th, 2003 at 12:55 PM.

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